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CMS Guidance

CMS Provides Additional COVID-19 EMTALA Guidance for Hospitals

May 4, 2020

by Carson Lamb and Neal N. Peterson

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On March 9, 2020, the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (“CMS”) issued a memorandum describing hospitals’ continuing obligations with respect to the Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (“EMTALA”) during the COVID-19 public health emergency (“PHE”). Check out our previous blog post on this topic here.

Last week, in response to a growing number of questions from hospitals and critical access hospitals (“CAHs”), CMS released additional guidance in the form of frequently asked questions (“FAQs”) concerning the implications of COVID-19 on EMTALA compliance. The FAQs address questions CMS has received on a variety of topics, including patient presentation to the emergency department (“ED”), the applicability of EMTALA in different facilities, determining who is a qualified medical professional, as well as information on medical screening exams, patient stabilization, transfers, and other EMTALA-related topics.

Below, we set forth a sampling of some of those questions and answers. A full list of the FAQs, covering all of the EMTALA topics CMS addressed in its FAQs, including topics not covered in this blog, can be found here.

Patients Presenting to the Emergency Department

Q. May hospitals place a sign outside an ED stating “COVID-19 testing is not being offered to asymptomatic patients”?

A. Yes. In general, signage may be used to inform individuals about the availability of COVID-19 testing or to provide direction to alternative sites on the hospital’s campus where medical screening examinations (“MSE”) are available; for example, directing the patient to a parking lot test site for COVID-19.

CMS emphasized, however, that it is a violation of EMTALA for hospitals to use signage that presents a barrier to individuals, including potential COVID-19 patients, from coming to the ED or for hospitals to otherwise refuse to provide a MSE to anyone who comes to the ED for examination or treatment.

Hospitals may encourage the public to go to off-campus sites to be screened for COVID-19 instead of to the hospital. Normally, a hospital may not tell individuals who have already entered an ED to go to the off-site location for the MSE—such a redirection usually may only be to an on-campus alternative site. However, CMS has approved via a section 1135 waiver for the COVID-19 public health emergency (“PHE”) the ability to re-direct patients to an offsite location for screening, in accordance with a state emergency preparedness or pandemic plan.

Q. Is a hospital’s ability to refer an individual to an alternative off-campus screening site limited strictly to those individuals with COVID-19 symptoms?

A. No. CMS clarified that any patients may be redirected to an off-campus screening location to receive an MSE under the section 1135 waivers regardless of the presence of COVID-19 symptoms. For example, ambulance patients may be referred off-campus (i.e., without any off-loading or any evaluation before the referral). Public health officials, emergency medical services (“EMS”) systems, and hospitals may develop protocols, including COVID-19 protocols, governing where EMS should transport individuals for emergency care.

As a reminder, for a hospital owned-and-operated ambulance operating in accordance with community-wide EMS protocols that directs the transport of individuals to a hospital other than the hospital that owns the ambulance (for example, to the closest appropriate hospital), the presenting individual is considered to have come to the ED of the hospital to which the individual is transported. The receiving hospital is subject to EMTALA at the time the individual is brought onto hospital property.

Where Does EMTALA Apply?

Q. Can EMTALA be relaxed to allow hospitals to refer patients to urgent care facilities?

A. Hospitals may encourage the public to go to off-campus sites for COVID-19 screening instead of the hospital so long as those sites are operating in accordance with the state or local pandemic plan, are identified specifically by the hospital as the place to receive an MSE, and have the capability to provide that MSE. Additionally, CMS has approved a section 1135 waiver for the duration of the public health emergency granting hospitals the ability to re-direct patients to an off-site location.

Q. What is the definition of “on campus”?

A. The definition of campus can be found at 42 C.F.R. § 413.65(a)(2) and means the physical area immediately adjacent to the provider’s main buildings, other areas and structures that are not strictly contiguous to the main buildings but are located within 250 yards of the main buildings and any other areas determined on a case-by-case basis.

Per 42 C.F.R. § 489.24(b), “Hospital property” means the entire main hospital campus, including the parking lot, sidewalk, and driveway, but excluding other areas or structures of the hospital’s main building that are not part of the hospital, such as physician offices, rural health centers, skilled nursing facilities, or other entities that participate separately under Medicare, or restaurants, shops, or other nonmedical facilities.

During the COVID-19 PHE, non-hospital properties, such as hotels, dormitories, and field hospitals at places like parks, are becoming extensions of hospitals, otherwise known as temporary expansion sites. This is permissible under the section 1135 waiver of the provider-based regulations at 42 C.F.R. § 413.65 and certain requirements under the Medicare conditions of participation at 42 C.F.R. § 482.41 and § 485.623.

For the duration of the COVID-19 PHE, these waivers allow a hospital to establish and operate as part of the hospital any location meeting the Conditions of Participation (CoPs) for hospitals that continue to apply during the PHE. These waivers also allow a hospital to change the status of its current provider-based department locations to the extent necessary to address the needs of hospital patients as part of the state or local pandemic plan. As such, it is acceptable to triage and treat patients in these temporary expansion sites.

Q: Can multiple hospitals with different Medicare provider numbers join together to establish the off-site location in accordance with the state emergency plan? If so, what EMTALA implications would result for each hospital involved?

A: Yes. Temporary expansion sites may serve multiple hospitals if it is consistent with their state emergency plan. Unless the off-campus site is already a dedicated emergency department (“DED”) of a hospital, as defined under EMTALA regulations at 42 C.F.R. § 489.24(b), EMTALA requirements do not apply. If an individual being treated at a temporary expansion site needs additional medical attention on an emergent basis, the site is required, under the Medicare CoPs, to arrange referral/transfer. When multiple hospitals join to establish an off-site location, the hospitals should operate in distinct clinical spaces within the location or designate one facility that will assume responsibility for ensuring compliance with the CoPs including EMTALA requirements (if applicable). If the space is shared across multiple hospitals, CMS notes that noncompliance problems at a temporary expansion sites may implicate associated certified hospitals depending upon the type of noncompliance.

Q: How does EMTALA apply if a community has exhausted its supply of beds and/or ventilators and a patient presents with an emergent condition that needs these resources for stabilization?

A: Hospitals are required to provide stabilizing treatment to individuals determined to have an emergency medical condition within the hospital’s capability prior to arranging an appropriate transfer. In situations where facilities may not have the necessary services or equipment, they should provide stabilizing interventions within their capability until the individual can be transferred. For example, in cases where the hospital does not have available ventilators, establishing an advanced airway and providing manual ventilation can assist in stabilizing the individual until an appropriate transfer can be arranged.

Q: If a hospital sets up an alternative off-campus testing site, is that site regulated by the hospital conditions of participation?

A: Yes. Alternative care sites and temporary extension sites that are established by the hospital are still required to follow the applicable hospital CoPs to the extent not waived under the blanket waivers issued by CMS. Community testing centers established by the state would be under the state emergency and pandemic plan and are not required to meet the hospital CoPs.

Qualified Medical Professionals (QMPs)

Q: Has CMS removed the requirement to have a QMP, approved by the governing body, perform the MSE?

A: No. QMPs responsible for performing MSEs must still be approved by the hospital’s governing body. Hospitals may request a case-by-case section 1135 waiver to allow MSEs to be performed by qualified medical staff authorized by the hospital, who are acting within their scope of practice and licensure, but are not designated in the hospital bylaws to perform the MSEs.

Medical Screening Exams

CMS has received a number of questions from providers regarding how MSEs may be performed in light of the COVID-19 pandemic.

Q: Can emergency physicians and other health care practitioners conduct medical screening exams (MSEs) under EMTALA via telehealth?

A: Yes. QMPs, including emergency physicians, can perform MSEs using telehealth equipment. The QMP may be on-campus and using technology to self-contain or offsite due to staffing shortages. The MSE may be performed solely via telehealth if clinically appropriate. If the patient is seen by a QMP located on campus via electronic two-way technology, the service would not be considered a telehealth visit. Regardless of location, the QMP must be performing within the scope of his/her state practice act and approved by the hospital’s governing body to perform MSEs.

Q: Can CMS waive certain elements of EMTALA to allow for more flexibility in meeting the current medical screening exam (MSE)?

A: CMS has temporarily waived some EMTALA requirements to allow screening for patients at a location offsite from the hospital’s campus to prevent the spread of COVID-19, so long as it is not inconsistent with a state’s emergency preparedness or pandemic plan.

Under the waiver, hospital EDs may redirect incoming patients to alternative screening sites staffed by QMPs, to ensure symptomatic or COVID-19-positive patients are directed to appropriate settings of care.

Q: Can emergency physicians perform medical screening exams outside of the ED, such as in tents in the parking lot, under EMTALA?

A: Yes. A hospital may set up alternative sites on its campus to perform MSEs. Individuals may be redirected to these sites. Whether the individual is seen at the alternate on-campus site or in the ED, they should be logged in where they are seen. Individuals do not need to present to the ED, first, and if they do present to the ED, they may still be redirected to the on-campus alternative screening location for logging and subsequent screening. This is a triage function, and the person providing the redirection from the ED should be qualified to recognize individuals who are obviously in need of immediate treatment in the ED. Hospital non-clinical staff stationed at other entrances to the hospital may provide redirection to the on-campus alternative screening location for individuals seeking COVID-19 testing.

Q: Can the MSE be conducted by a Registered Nurse (RN)?

A: Yes. MSEs must be conducted by qualified personnel, which may include physicians, nurse practitioners, physician’s assistants, or RNs trained to perform MSEs, acting within the scope of their state licensure law, and as approved by the hospital’s governing body. Hospitals may request a waiver to allow MSEs to be performed by other personnel, including trained RNs not previously approved by the governing body to perform MSEs.

Q: If there is an on-site COVID-19 testing location (e.g., tent outside main ED), would EMTALA apply if individuals are only requesting COVID-19 testing? Would a MSE be required?

A: EMTALA would apply if a patient who was solely seeking COVID-19 testing made a request for medical treatment while on the hospital campus or demonstrated a medical condition that a prudent layperson would believe, based on the individual’s appearance or behavior, indicated that the individual needed examination or treatment of a medical condition. However, patients who present solely for the purpose of COVID-19 testing and are not making a request for treatment of a medical condition, do not necessarily require a MSE. If the person complains of or exhibits any symptoms of a medical condition, then that person should receive an appropriate MSE to determine whether an emergency medical condition (“EMC”) exists. The EMTALA obligation is satisfied if the MSE determines no EMC exists.

Q: Can a hospital conduct an MSE if the patient remains in an automobile and meet its EMTALA obligations?

A: It depends. The MSE does not have to take place in the ED to satisfy EMTALA. The content of the MSE varies according to the individual’s presenting signs and symptoms, and it can be as simple or as complex, as needed, to determine if an emergency medical condition exists. MSEs must be conducted by qualified personnel, which may include physicians, nurse practitioners, physician’s assistants, or RNs trained to perform MSEs and acting within the scope of their state practice act. If a clinically-appropriate MSE can be performed in an automobile to determine whether or not an emergency medical condition exists, that MSE would be permissible under EMTALA.

Q: For off-campus, hospital-controlled sites, can a person first presenting to the ED be redirected from the ED to the off-campus site where the MSE will be completed?

A: Yes. Hospitals may redirect patients presenting to the ED to an off-campus site where an MSE will be completed. Normally, a hospital may not tell individuals who have already entered an ED to go to the off-site location for the MSE, such a redirection usually only occurs to an on-campus alternative site. However, CMS has issued a blanket section 1135 waiver for the duration of the COVID-19 PHE the ability to re-direct patients to an offsite location for screening, in accordance with a state emergency preparedness or pandemic plan. Hospitals are generally able to manage the separation and flow of potentially infectious patients through alternate screening locations on the hospital campus during the COVID-19 PHE.

Q: Is there a specific time frame in which the MSE has to take place if a patient is referred to an off-campus site? Would it have to happen that same day?

A: There is no specified time frame in which the MSE has to occur after the referral from the hospital to an off-campus site. However, triage entails the clinical assessment of the individual’s presenting signs and symptoms at the time of arrival at the hospital, in order to prioritize when the individual will be seen by a physician or other QMP. Individuals presenting must be provided an MSE appropriate to the individuals’ presenting signs and symptoms, as well as the capability and capacity of the hospital. The MSE must be the same MSE that the hospital would perform on any individual coming to the hospital’s dedicated emergency department with those signs and symptoms, regardless of the individual’s ability to pay for medical care. If a hospital applies a nondiscriminatory screening process that is reasonably calculated to determine whether an EMC exists, it has met its obligations under EMTALA. The required MSE and stabilizing treatment should not be delayed. If the MSE is appropriate and does not reveal an EMC, the hospital has no further obligation.

Q: If a hospital set up a COVID-19 testing location offsite, and patients only present to the hospital for testing without requesting additional services, do those patients need an MSE before we refer them offsite?

A: Those patients would not be subject to an MSE in this case unless they are requesting examination or treatment for a medical condition or demonstrate a medical condition for which a MSE is necessary. EMTALA requires that all persons who present to the hospital or ED for a medical condition be provided an MSE to determine whether they have an EMC.

Transfer and Stabilization of Patients

Q: Has CMS waived elements of EMTALA to allow for more flexibility in the transfer and stabilization requirements?

A: No. CMS has not waived EMTALA transfer or stabilization requirements. Hospitals are expected to provide stabilizing treatment within their capabilities and capacity prior to the initiation of a transfer to another hospital. However, when a section 1135 waiver has been issued, sanctions for an inappropriate transfer of a patient or for the direction or relocation of a patient to receive a MSE at an alternate location do not apply if certain conditions are met, as enumerated at 42 C.F.R. §489.24(a)(2)(i)(A)-(E).

Q: Is transfer to a designated facility permissible regardless of COVID-19 status, as long as positives go to designated positive facilities and negatives go to designated negative facilities?

A: Yes. A patient transfer under the state emergency and pandemic plan would apply to all patients regardless of COVID-19 status following an appropriate MSE and determination that patient is stable for an appropriate transfer.

Q: When could a hospital refer a patient who comes to the ED for medical treatment to an urgent care center?

A: Hospitals must provide a MSE to all patients who come to the ED requesting treatment for a medical condition or where the individual is demonstrating presence of a medical condition to determine if an EMC exists. The content of the MSE varies according to the individual’s presenting signs and symptoms, but should be provided within the capabilities of the hospital’s ED, including ancillary services routinely available to the hospital. Once the MSE is complete and if the patient is determined not to have an EMC, the hospital’s EMTALA obligation ends and the patient may be referred to an urgent care center for continued care of non-emergency illnesses or injuries. However, a section 1135 waiver gives the ability for hospitals to re-direct patients that have presented to the ED to an offsite location for the MSE in accordance with a state emergency preparedness or pandemic plan. Under the section 1135 waiver, hospital EDs may redirect incoming patients to alternative screening sites staffed by qualified medical personnel, to ensure that symptomatic or COVID-19-positive patients are directed to appropriate settings of care.

Waivers Under Section 1135 of the Social Security Act

Q: Has EMTALA been broadly waived?

A: No. CMS has approved a section 1135 waiver for the COVID-19 PHE, which temporarily includes the ability to re-direct patients to an offsite location for screening in accordance with a state emergency preparedness or pandemic plan. Hospitals are still expected to provide an MSE to any individual who comes to the emergency department and requests examination or treatment, or has a request for examination or treatment made on their behalf. The purpose of the MSE is to determine if an emergency medical condition exists. If an EMC is determined to exist, the hospital must provide stabilizing treatment within the hospital capabilities or an appropriate transfer per 42 C.F.R. § 489.24.

While certain aspects of EMTALA may be waived under the section 1135 waiver, federal civil rights laws have not been waived. Hospitals that receive federal financial assistance are still obligated to comply with federal civil rights laws, including Section 504 of the Rehabilitation Act, Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964, Section 1557 of the Affordable Care Act and the Hill-Burton Act.

Hospitals do not have to initiate a disaster plan before the section 1135 waiver becomes effective and hospitals are not required to provide notification to CMS upon initiation of the disaster plan. The flexibilities and blanket waivers released by CMS are retroactive to March 1, 2020. The waivers will end no later than the termination of the COVID-19 PHE, or 60 days from the date the waiver or modification is first published, unless the Secretary of HHS extends the waiver by notice for additional periods of up to 60 days, up to the end of the emergency period.

Any additional formal guidance, revisions to existing guidance, or additional clarifications will be released via a QSO memorandum or other CMS approved communication.

We at Dorsey are continuing to monitor the developments related to COVID-19. If you have any questions about the issues addressed in this blog, please contact the authors or your regular Dorsey attorney. You can access Dorsey’s coronavirus resource center, which contains a wide variety of legal resources related to the coronavirus outbreak, available here. You can also access Dorsey’s health law blog related to health law updates, available here.

Firm Highlights

Insights

Minnesota Consumer-Fraud Enforcement: Disclaimers Won’t Cure Deception, and Penalties Can Add Up

Misleading advertising claims can lead to costly consequences. In State of Minnesota ex rel. Ellison v. Wall & Associates, Inc., No. A25-2064, 2026 WL 3118291 (Minn. App. Oct. 19, 2026), the Minnesota Court of Appeals recently affirmed a bench trial verdict against a tax-relief company and two executives for violations of the Minnesota Consumer Fraud Act (“MCFA”) and the Minnesota Deceptive Trade Practices Act (“MDTPA”). The decision, which affirmed a substantial restitution and civil penalty judgment, underscores the broad power of the Minnesota Attorney General to act against deceptive sales practices. The decision also offers practical lessons for businesses seeking to reduce liability risks in consumer-facing communications. Background Wall & Associates (“W&A”), a Virginia-based tax-relief company, marketed assistance to taxpayers seeking relief from outstanding federal and state tax liabilities, often with offers in compromise—agreements to settle tax liabilities for less than the amount owed. In its extensive advertising campaigns, W&A represented that its average client received a 90% reduction in their tax debt, that it was a local company with Minnesota offices, that it provided legal services, and that it would “Solve ALL Tax Problems.” In reality, W&A’s promises bore little resemblance to what many clients received. Most of W&A’s clients saw just a 9.5% reduction in federal tax debt and 1.2% in state tax debt. W&A had no permanent Minnesota offices. And W&A provided neither legal representation nor assistance with filing tax returns—those services required referrals to separate firms for an additional fee. All the while, W&A clients paid upfront and recurring fees, including during periods when W&A did no work on their cases. Minnesota Attorney General Keith Ellison sued W&A, its founder and owner Ernest Kenneth Wall, and its president and CEO Patrick Mark Yates, alleging violations of, among other laws, the MCFA and the MDTPA. Following a 12-day bench trial, the district court determined that W&A violated the MCFA and MDTPA through its false and embellished advertising. The district court also held Wall and Yates individually liable for those violations because they directed, participated in, and acquiesced in the violations. The district court ordered injunctive relief, $2.7 million in restitution (with Wall and Yates jointly and severally liable for $1.3 million), and civil penalties of $786,517 against W&A, $415,500 against Wall, and $207,750 against Yates. The district court also awarded over $2.5 million in attorneys’ fees and costs to the state. W&A, Wall, and Yates appealed to the Minnesota Court of Appeals, which affirmed the district court’s decision on October 19, 2026. Although W&A, Wall, and Yates challenged the judgment on numerous grounds, several highlights of the decision provide important takeaways for consumer-facing businesses. Individual Reliance Is Not Required for Statutory Liability W&A argued that Attorney General Ellison had to prove a causal nexus between each violation of the MCFA and MDTPA and the injury to a particular consumer to establish liability. In W&A’s view, this required proof that each injured consumer had personally relied on W&A’s false representation. The Court of Appeals rejected this argument based on the MCFA’s and MDTPA’s plain language, which requires no proof of actual deception or confusion by consumers. The Court of Appeals finally pointed to the Minnesota Supreme Court’s decision in State v. Minnesota School of Business, Inc., which held that when a defendant’s misrepresentations are directed at and affected “a broad group of consumers, proof of direct individual reliance is not required to establish a causal nexus between MCFA violations and the harm suffered by consumers.” 935 N.W.2d 124, 135 (Minn. 2019). The Court of Appeals affirmed, however, that a causal nexus is necessary to support an award of damages under the MCFA and MDTPA. In making that determination, district courts look to various factors, including whether the misrepresentations were “longstanding, pervasive, and widespread in communications directed to consumers,” whether the seller intended and understood that consumers would rely on the misrepresentations, and whether the information was of a kind on which consumers would typically rely. The Court of Appeals’ decision continues Minnesota School of Business’s broad interpretation of liability under the MCFA and the MDTPA. Coordinated marketing campaigns to a “broad group of consumers” may expose businesses to MCFA and MDTPA liability without customer-by-customer proof of injury. That said, a causal nexus remains an element of an MCFA and MDTPA claim, and businesses involved in litigation should build a clear record at trial and on appeal showing how each of the relevant factors bears on the causal-nexus inquiry. Contractual Disclaimers Are Not an Automatic Defense to a Misleading Pitch W&A next argued that disclaimers in its client contracts prevented consumers from claiming they had been misled by its advertising. Reiterating that individual reliance is not required under the MCFA and MDTPA, the Court of Appeals held that a contractual disclaimer does not necessarily defeat a claim based on a conflicting oral representation. And on the facts of this case, the Court of Appeals agreed with the district court that W&A’s contractual disclaimers were insufficient given the extensive misrepresentations by W&A and the unequal bargaining power between it and its customers. This holding confirms that contractual disclaimers are not a cure-all for misleading advertising or sales practices. Businesses should review the entire customer journey, including pre-contract representations, as those representations may survive a contractual disclaimer to the contrary. And if faced with litigation, businesses should build a strong record, both at trial and on appeal, showing why any disclaimer is effective in context. The State Has Broad Authority to Seek Restitution W&A also challenged Attorney General Ellison’s authority to seek restitution under the state’s parens patriae authority to protect residents’ collective interests, arguing that injury to only 228 Minnesotans did not affect a sufficiently substantial segment of the population. The Court of Appeals rejected a simple headcount approach, instead explaining that the state had a legitimate interest in protecting residents’ economic well-being as a whole. In any event, the Court of Appeals held that if restitution was not appropriate under the state’s parens patriae authority, then it would still be appropriate under the Attorney General’s enforcement powers under Minn. Stat. § 8.31. The decision reinforces that the broader and more sustained the deceptive advertising, the stronger the case for restitution to protect Minnesotans’ economic interests. Civil Penalties Accrue Per Violation, Not Per Defendant The Court of Appeals finally rejected W&A’s claim that the Attorney General’s enforcement powers under Minn. Stat. § 8.31 permit only civil penalties of up to $25,000 for each defendant. Rather, the Court of Appeals explained that penalties are limited to $25,000 per violation. Multiple violations can therefore produce substantially greater penalties. The Court of Appeals also rejected the argument that restitution made penalties unnecessary: repaying consumers does not eliminate the need to address gains from deceptive conduct and deter future violations. Final Takeaways Align every consumer-facing communication. Broad and extensive marketing campaigns can expose businesses to stronger enforcement standards under the MCFA and MDTPA, making it critical that consumer communications remain accurate and consistent from the first advertisement through the final sale. Plan for layered enforcement exposure. Penalties under the MCFA and MDTPA can add up quickly: W&A, Wall, and Yates ultimately faced more than $6 million in civil penalties, restitution, and attorneys’ fees. The decision continues a line of Minnesota cases recognizing the Attorney General’s broad consumer-protection authority. Details matter. Although the Attorney General’s enforcement power is broad, it is not boundless. As the Court of Appeals explained, issues of causation, the effectiveness of contractual disclaimers, and the availability of restitution and civil penalties all turn on the specific facts of the case. Effective advocacy at trial and on appeal is critical to developing the facts relevant to liability and damages.

Insights

The Methane Regulatory Pendulum Swings Again: EPA Proposes Sweeping Changes to Federal Standards for the Oil and Natural Gas Sector

Few environmental regulations better illustrate Washington’s regulatory “ping-pong” than EPA’s methane standards for the oil and natural gas sector. Over the last decade, successive administrations have repeatedly expanded, narrowed, rescinded, reinstated, and revised federal methane requirements, leaving industry to navigate a shifting compliance landscape with each change in administration. EPA’s October 27, 2026 proposal to reconsider significant portions of the 2024 oil and natural gas New Source Performance Standards (“NSPS”) and Emission Guidelines (“EG”) under Subparts OOOOb and OOOOc represents the latest swing of the regulatory pendulum. If finalized, the proposal would substantially reduce compliance obligations in several areas, particularly with respect to lower-producing wells, associated gas flaring, equipment and control-device standards, and the Super Emitter Program. EPA estimates that the proposal would result in approximately $45 billion in savings, while preserving what the agency considers appropriate methane emission controls. EPA’s proposal was published in the Federal Register on October 29, 2026. Comments must be received on or before December 16, 2026.  Significantly, EPA is not using this rulemaking to reconsider its general authority to regulate methane emissions from the oil and natural gas sector. Rather, the agency is addressing specific requirements adopted in the 2024 methane rule, while broader questions concerning greenhouse gas regulation are being addressed in separate proceedings. The present proposal therefore focuses on the appropriate design and scope of particular methane regulations, rather than resolving the threshold question of whether methane may be regulated under the Clean Air Act at all. I.    EPA Proposes to Eliminate the Super Emitter Program Among the proposal’s most consequential changes is the complete elimination of the Super Emitter Program. Adopted in 2024, the program created a regulatory framework under which EPA-certified third parties could identify large methane releases using approved remote-sensing technologies. Upon receiving a qualifying notification from EPA, owners and operators were required to investigate the reported emissions event, report findings to EPA, and take corrective action where necessary. EPA now proposes to repeal the Super Emitter Program in its entirety. The agency questions the program’s legal and policy foundations, including the role of third parties in identifying emissions events and triggering regulatory obligations. EPA also questions whether the program is necessary or effective given other requirements applicable to regulated sources and whether its expected emissions reductions justify its costs and implementation challenges. Because the program was incorporated into both the NSPS applicable to new, modified, and reconstructed sources and the EG applicable to existing sources, its removal would affect federal requirements as well as the presumptive requirements that States otherwise would be expected to address in Clean Air Act § 111(d) plans. Importantly, EPA’s proposed repeal does not prevent States from developing and implementing their own Super Emitter Program based on the existing requirements, which several states are already doing.  II.    EPA Reconsiders Associated Gas Requirements Another centerpiece of EPA’s proposal is its reconsideration of the 2024 rule’s restrictions on flaring associated gas from oil wells. The 2024 rule determined that the best system of emission reduction (“BSER”) generally required operators to capture and beneficially use associated gas by routing it to a sales line, using it onsite, or reinjecting it, rather than routinely flaring it. Although EPA provided certain transition periods and compliance flexibilities, particularly for wells facing infrastructure constraints, the rule ultimately established a framework strongly favoring capture and utilization over flaring. Since promulgation, EPA has received significant feedback regarding gathering-system limitations, gas quality issues, and other practical barriers operators face in securing outlets for associated gas. In response, EPA proposes to replace the existing capture-focused approach with a substantially more flexible standard. EPA argues that the 2024 rule relied too heavily on the availability of third-party gathering and processing infrastructure that is often beyond an operator’s control, raising questions regarding achievability and cost-effectiveness. Under the proposal, BSER would be based on routing associated gas to a flare or other control device capable of achieving at least a 95 percent reduction in methane and volatile organic compound (“VOC”) emissions. Operators could continue to capture gas for sale, use it onsite, or reinject it where feasible, but those practices would no longer be required. EPA also proposes that if a portion of associated gas is routed to sales or used for another purpose, the remaining portion must comply with the 95 percent standard. For example, if a company can route 40 percent of its associated gas to a sales line, the company would need to route the other 60 percent to a control device with a 95 percent reduction, or to a flare. EPA is also soliciting comment on less sweeping alternatives that would preserve the basic structure of the 2024 associated-gas program, while providing additional compliance flexibility. In particular, EPA requests comment on whether it should retain the current capture-and-sales framework but expand the circumstances under which temporary flaring is permitted or extend the duration of temporary flaring allowances where operators face infrastructure constraints. EPA appears to recognize that gathering-system availability, processing constraints, and other third-party factors can affect an operator's ability to route gas to sales, even where the operator ultimately intends to comply with the capture requirements. These requests for comment suggest that EPA is considering whether targeted revisions to the existing framework could address implementation concerns without fully abandoning the 2024 rule's underlying preference for gas capture and beneficial use. III.    EPA’s Reconsideration of the “No Identifiable Emissions” Standard EPA's proposal would substantially revise the 2024 rule’s “no identifiable emissions” (“NIE”) requirements applicable to certain covers and closed vent systems (“CVS”) associated with storage tanks. Under the existing rule, covered equipment generally must operate without identifiable emissions, creating a compliance framework that focuses heavily on the absence of observable emissions rather than solely on equipment design or overall control effectiveness. Since promulgation, industry has argued that the standard effectively functions as a zero-emissions requirement that may be difficult to satisfy under all operating conditions, even where equipment and vapor control systems are properly designed, maintained, and operated. Moreover, EPA stated in the preamble to the 2024 rule that any identified emissions would constitute a deviation of the emissions limitation, resulting in a framework under which the observation of emissions could itself establish noncompliance. EPA now proposes to separate the requirements into distinct design and operational components and to fundamentally alter how compliance with the operational NIE requirement is evaluated. EPA proposes to distinguish between deviations of the design requirements and deviations of the operational NIE requirements. Under the proposed approach, failure to repair an identified emission or defect within 24 hours would constitute a deviation of the design requirement, although not necessarily an underlying violation. Separately, operators could demonstrate compliance with the operational NIE requirement by making repairs as soon as practicable, with an initial repair attempt within five days and final repair within 30 days, or by qualifying for the existing delay-of-repair provisions. A deviation of the operational requirement would occur if the applicable repair deadlines are not met and the delay-of-repair provisions do not apply. The proposal also establishes a new framework for addressing recurring or “chronic” emissions events. After the third emissions event or defect from the same cover or CVS within a year, the owner or operator would be required to conduct an investigative analysis within 10 days to determine whether the underlying cause relates to equipment design, operation, maintenance, or prior repair efforts. The results of that investigation would have important compliance implications. If recurring emissions are attributable to a design flaw, EPA would treat the issue as a deviation of the design requirements. If the emissions result from inadequate prior repairs, the deviation would be attributed to the repair requirements. If operations, maintenance, or other site practices are responsible, the deviation would be classified under the operational requirements. EPA would also require implementation of corrective measures identified through the analysis, including design modifications within 90 days and operational or maintenance-related corrective actions within 30 days. Taken together, these revisions would shift the NIE standard away from a framework in which the mere presence of emissions may establish noncompliance and toward one that focuses on whether operators identify emissions, complete timely repairs, investigate recurring problems, and address the root causes of repeated emissions events. IV.    Solicitation of Comment on “Legally and Practicably Enforceable” Standard EPA is also soliciting comment on the definition of “legally and practicably enforceable” (“LPE”), which industry has identified as one of the more problematic existing requirements. Under the 2024 rule, EPA adopted an interpretation of LPE that many commenters argued effectively disqualifies numerous state regulatory programs, permits, and other federally enforceable mechanisms from serving as the basis for remaining below applicable Subpart OOOOb storage tank thresholds. In particular, stakeholders have asserted that the current LPE framework makes it difficult for state air permitting programs and other state regulatory requirements to satisfy EPA's criteria, thereby causing more storage tanks and other emission units to remain subject to Subpart OOOOb requirements than would otherwise be the case. EPA now requests comment on whether its current interpretation of LPE is overly restrictive and whether alternative approaches would better account for the manner in which state permitting and regulatory programs are administered and enforced. The request is significant because a broader interpretation of LPE could allow a wider range of federally enforceable state permits and regulatory requirements to satisfy exemption criteria under OOOOb, potentially reducing the number of storage tanks and other sources subject to direct NSPS regulation. As a result, the LPE issue has implications that extend beyond compliance mechanics and could materially affect the scope of sources regulated under the federal methane program. V.    Revised Requirements for Marginal Wells EPA is also proposing significant revisions to the treatment of lower-producing wells under Subparts OOOOb and OOOOc. The agency notes that marginal wells constitute a substantial portion of the nation’s producing well inventory but account for a relatively small share of overall production. At the same time, EPA discusses studies estimating that marginal wells contribute a disproportionate share of methane emissions from oil and natural gas production. The agency is evaluating whether the 2024 rule appropriately accounts for the operational characteristics, emissions profiles, and compliance costs associated with these wells. To address those concerns, EPA is proposing two alternative approaches to well-site subcategorization. Under the first option, EPA would distinguish between marginal and non-marginal well sites. EPA proposes to define a marginal well as a well that produced no more than 15 barrels of oil equivalent (“BOE”) per day over the prior 12-month period and a marginal well site as a site consisting exclusively of marginal wells with total site-wide production of no more than 15 BOE per day over the same period. EPA is also soliciting comment on whether marginal wells should be further subdivided based on production levels, including a potential distinction between sites producing 6 BOE per day or less and sites producing more than 6 BOE but no more than 15 BOE per day, which could result in additional regulatory flexibility for the lowest-producing wells. Under the second option, EPA would distinguish between conventional and unconventional well sites and tailor requirements based on that classification, including reduced requirements for conventional wells. The agency is seeking comment on which framework better reflects the operational and emissions characteristics of different well sites, as well as whether additional subcategories should be established within the marginal-well population and the extent to which compliance requirements should differ among categories. VI.    LDAR, Pneumatic Controllers, Control Device Monitoring, and Facility Modifications EPA's proposal also includes several targeted revisions to the 2024 rule's leak detection and repair (“LDAR”) requirements. Most notably, EPA proposes additional flexibility in the use of advanced monitoring technologies and seeks to move away from compliance frameworks that rely heavily on a single detection method. The agency is proposing changes intended to facilitate the use of multiple monitoring technologies, including optical gas imaging and other alternative detection approaches, and is seeking comment on whether technology-neutral compliance options can achieve equivalent emissions reductions at lower cost. EPA also proposes revisions for components and equipment that are particularly difficult to monitor using conventional LDAR methods, reflecting concerns that certain 2024 requirements may not be practical or cost-effective in the field. More broadly, EPA questions whether some of the monitoring frequencies adopted in 2024 appropriately balance compliance burdens and emissions-reduction benefits and seeks comment on additional opportunities to tailor LDAR obligations based on emissions risk and source characteristics. EPA also proposes technical revisions to requirements governing control devices and related equipment. These include changes addressing continuous pilot-flame requirements, flame-monitoring data deviations, control-device alerts, visible-emissions test conditions, temporary or backup control devices, temporary process controllers, and control-device categories. The agency’s stated objective is to provide additional compliance flexibility while maintaining appropriate emissions controls. The practical effect will depend on the final requirements and the equipment and circumstances to which each amendment applies. The proposal also addresses pneumatic controllers and equipment leaks at gas processing plants. For certain high-pressure process controllers at transmission compressor stations, EPA proposes a separate regulatory approach based on its reassessment of technical feasibility and cost. The proposal should not be read as establishing a general exemption for pneumatic controllers across the industry. EPA also proposes changes to other equipment-specific requirements, including requirements applicable to pumps, storage vessels, and equipment leaks at gas plants, in response to concerns raised following promulgation of the 2024 rule. Finally, EPA proposes changes to certain requirements governing liquids unloading and other well-site operations, as well as technical corrections and clarifications to the existing regulatory text. These provisions form part of EPA’s broader effort to address implementation concerns and reassess the costs and expected emissions reductions associated with selected requirements in the 2024 rule. Operators should evaluate the specific proposed amendments applicable to their facilities rather than assume that the proposal would provide across-the-board relief from existing monitoring, equipment, or control-device obligations. VII.    Implications for States and Future Congressional or Administrative Action EPA’s proposal would substantially revise several consequential elements of the 2024 methane rule, but it would not eliminate regulation of existing oil and natural gas sources under Clean Air Act § 111(d). As a result, states remain subject to the existing obligation to develop and submit plans for existing sources. If the proposed revisions are finalized, states currently developing those plans may need to reevaluate key program elements, including requirements relating to associated gas, well-site subcategories, the Super Emitter Program, and other compliance obligations. The proposal does not itself extend the January 22, 2027 deadline for state-plan submissions established under the existing framework. The Congressional Review Act (“CRA”) remains a potential source of uncertainty. Depending on when EPA submits a final rule to Congress and the applicable congressional-session timing, a future Congress and President could seek to disapprove the rule under the CRA. A successful disapproval would invalidate the rule and generally restrict the agency from issuing a rule in substantially the same form absent subsequent statutory authorization. The CRA’s lookback provisions can affect the period during which a rule remains subject to congressional review, so the risk cannot be assessed solely by reference to the calendar year in which the rule is finalized. The timing of finalization and submission to Congress, together with the applicable congressional calendar, will determine the extent of that exposure. Finally, unlike the CRA, which can nullify a recently promulgated rule through legislative action, a future administration seeking to unwind this rule would generally need to proceed through a new notice-and-comment rulemaking. EPA would need to revisit the underlying BSER determinations, cost analyses, technical feasibility findings, and enforceability conclusions that support the final rule. Because this proposal is grounded heavily in findings regarding achievability, legal and practical enforceability, and cost-effectiveness, a future administration would need to develop a sufficient record supporting different conclusions before reinstating more stringent requirements. Consequently, the final rule may prove more durable than prior pendulum swings, even if it remains politically controversial.

Insights

Observations on the SEC’s 2027 Examination Priorities

The SEC’s Division of Examinations (the “Division”) recently announced its examination priorities (“Exam Priorities”) for fiscal year 2027.1 Although many of the Division’s core areas of focus remain consistent with fiscal year 2026, the 2027 Exam Priorities include notable changes and refinements, which we discuss below, along with other key 2027 examination priorities. Dorsey Observations Renewed focus on economic conflicts of interest. After certain economic-incentive topics received less emphasis in the 2026 Exam Priorities2, the Division has again expressly identified economic conflicts as an examination focus. The 2027 Exam Priorities indicate that the Division will prioritize reviewing advisers’ fiduciary obligations relating to economic conflicts of interest raised by fee rebates, fee and expense calculations, cash management, quid pro quo arrangements, and deposits and withdrawals. Greater emphasis on private-fund practices. Building on the private-fund items in the 2026 Exam Priorities, the 2027 Exam Priorities indicate that the Division will assess private-fund disclosures and controls relating to investment allocations, leverage, affiliated service providers, and fees and expenses. The Division also identified investments in private companies through special purpose vehicles (“SPVs”) and loans provided by private funds and business development companies (“BDCs”) as products the Division will scrutinize. Advisers, particularly private-fund advisers, should evaluate whether their disclosures and compliance programs address these areas. Expanded focus on AI-related cybersecurity risks. While the 2026 Exam Priorities focused on advisers’ use of and representations regarding artificial intelligence (“AI”), the 2027 Exam Priorities specifically highlight AI-enabled cybersecurity threats, including AI-generated phishing and synthetic or “deepfake” voice and video used for social engineering. The shift signals that registrants should consider whether their cybersecurity policies and controls adequately address these evolving threats. New focus on proxy advisory firms. The 2027 Exam Priorities state that the Division will examine advisers that rely on proxy advisory firms, including how those advisers evaluate the firms’ recommendations, assess the bases for those recommendations, identify potential conflicts of interest, and determine whether that reliance satisfies applicable legal obligations. Advisers that rely on proxy advisory firms may wish to consider whether their compliance programs address these areas. Updated focus on Regulation S-P and Regulation S-ID. The 2026 Exam Priorities stated that the Division would engage firms during examinations regarding their progress in preparing incident response programs ahead of the compliance dates for the amendments to Regulation S-P and would examine compliance with the amended rule after those dates. The 2027 Exam Priorities indicate that examinations will focus on whether firms have developed, implemented, and maintained reasonably designed policies and procedures addressing administrative, technical, and physical safeguards to protect customer information and that, in accordance with the amended rule, staff will evaluate response program policies and procedures for unauthorized access to or use of customer information, including customer notification procedures and oversight of service providers. With respect to Regulation S-ID, the 2027 Exam Priorities indicate that examiners will assess whether firms are updating their Identity Theft Prevention Program to address emerging risks, such as those related to AI and stolen credentials. Advisers may wish to consider whether their compliance programs address these areas, as applicable. Summary of Other 2027 Examination Priorities Beyond the developments discussed above, many of the Division’s core examination priorities remain consistent with fiscal year 2026. These include investment adviser fiduciary obligations and compliance programs, examinations of never-examined and recently registered advisers, and cybersecurity and operational resiliency. The Exam Priorities are not exhaustive, and examinations will vary based on each registrant’s business, activities and risks. Advisers should consider the 2027 Exam Priorities in reviewing their compliance programs and preparing for potential examinations, including by: Reviewing risk disclosures and controls. The Division states that, when examining advisers to private funds, it will assess whether investment-related risk disclosures are consistent with fiduciary standards and whether compliance policies, procedures, and controls are designed to address both fund-level and investment-level risks. Reviewing disclosures on allocations, leverage, and affiliated service providers. The 2027 Exam Priorities identify disclosures related to certain investments and allocations, the use of debt and fund-level lines of credit, and the use of affiliated service providers as examples. Confirming the accuracy of fee and expense calculations. The Division states that it will assess the accuracy of fee and expense calculations at both the fund and investment levels, and it identifies fee rebates, cash management, quid pro quo arrangements, deposits, and withdrawals as areas in which economic conflicts of interest may affect the impartiality of advice. Reviewing recommendations of illiquid or hard-to-trade products. The Division states that it will prioritize advisers that recommend products that are difficult to trade, have unusual features, or are illiquid, including loans provided by private funds or BDCs and investments in private companies through SPVs. Confirming that the compliance program is implemented and reviewed. The Division states that it will review compliance program components such as marketing, valuation, and custody, as appropriate, and will typically analyze the annual compliance review. It will also focus on compliance practices when advisers have started advising new asset classes or clients or grown through mergers or acquisitions. 1 SEC Division of Examinations 2027 Examination Priorities. 2 See Dorsey’s Client Alert on the SEC’s fiscal year 2026 exam priorities.

News

Dorsey & Whitney Advises Beijing Xunzhong on Two Consecutive H Share Placings Raising HK$418.5 Million

International law firm Dorsey & Whitney LLP acted as Hong Kong legal advisors to Beijing Xunzhong Communication Technology Co., Ltd. (“Xunzhong”) as to Hong Kong law in connection with two consecutive placings of new H shares under general mandate (the “First Placing” and the “Second Placing”, respectively, and together, the “Placings”). Xunzhong’s H shares are listed on the Main Board of the Hong Kong Stock Exchange (Stock Code: 2597). Winbull Securities International (Hong Kong) Limited acted as sole overall coordinator and placing agent on both Placings. The First Placing of 11,190,000 new H shares at HK$28.20 each was completed on September 17, 2026, followed by the Second Placing of 3,550,000 new H shares at HK$29.00 each on October 30, 2026. The Placings raised approximately HK$315.56 million and HK$102.95 million in gross proceeds, respectively, or approximately HK$418.51 million in aggregate (approximately HK$415.96 million in aggregate net proceeds). Both Placings were conducted under the same general mandate granted by shareholders at Xunzhong’s 2025 annual general meeting, and each was completed within one week of the signing of its placing agreement. Completing placings in consecutive months is relatively uncommon in the Hong Kong market, and doing so called on the technical depth of Dorsey’s Hong Kong Capital Markets team. Working closely with Xunzhong to understand its business needs and prepare the transaction documents, the team addressed in quick succession the remaining capacity under the general mandate, disclosure of the use of proceeds and the maintenance of Xunzhong’s public float, enabling both Placings to be completed seamlessly. “We are pleased to have advised Xunzhong on both Placings,” said Rachel Han, Partner and Co-Head of Dorsey’s Asia Capital Markets practice. “We appreciate the trust placed in our team and the close collaboration among all parties involved. We look forward to supporting Xunzhong as it continues to execute its growth strategy and pursue future capital markets opportunities.” Xunzhong is principally engaged in cloud-based communications services and enterprise digitalization services in the PRC. As disclosed in its announcements, the net proceeds of the First Placing are allocated to developing Xunzhong’s new computing power operation services business, while those of the Second Placing will be used to integrate model-as-a-service (MaaS) and AI agent capabilities into its existing cloud communications platform-as-a-service (PaaS) platform and software-as-a-service (SaaS) products. Approximately 55% of the net proceeds of the Second Placing will be used for computing power equipment upgrades for the MaaS system, approximately 35% for MaaS, PaaS and SaaS platform upgrades, and approximately 10% for working capital and general corporate purposes. With a single MaaS platform and shared computing power supporting its PaaS and SaaS offerings, Xunzhong intends for its MaaS, PaaS and SaaS capabilities to complement and reinforce one another, and to address customer needs from multiple angles, from embedding AI in customer communications and business workflows to maintaining stable performance at scale and keeping customer data within controlled environments. Partner and Co-Head of Dorsey’s Asia Capital Markets practice Rachel Han and Of Counsel in the Capital Markets and Corporate Compliance group Carlton Ng, along with Associate Kristy Ting, led the Dorsey Hong Kong Capital Markets & Corporate Compliance group in advising Xunzhong on both Placings.

Event/Resource

Corporate Counsel Symposium 2026 Materials Hub

Materials Symposium Agenda Sessions 8:30 am - 9:30 am CT Session A: The Corporate Compass: Finding True North When Ethical Duties Conflict Philip Kaplan, Senior Legal Counsel, Howden Re Lucia Suljic, Vice President, Corporate Legal, Canon USA Nicole Stanton, Partner & Deputy General Counsel, Dorsey & Whitney LLP This panel addresses ethical obligations of in-house counsel, including balancing obligations and duties that may conflict with each other. How should a responsible in-house lawyer deal with those challenging situations? Rather than stick to an academic discussion, this panel will revolve around a series of practical scenarios that are designed to be realistic and timely, including situations where counsel is asked to represent both the company and an individual, how and when to disclose uncomfortable facts and inconvenient documents, issues involving changing firms and companies, and multijurisdictional practice. The panel will feature discussion from two experienced in-house lawyers and Dorsey’s Deputy General Counsel. Session B: Managing Rapid Regulatory Change in International Trade and Cross-Border Investment Nathan Brower, Executive Vice President, General Counsel, Nature’s Sunshine Greg Ogunsanya, Senior Vice President, General Counsel and Corporate Secretary, H.B. Fuller Kathryn Wood, Senior Vice President & General Counsel, DecoPac, Inc. Dave Townsend and Lawrence Ward, Dorsey & Whitney LLP This program is designed for attorneys advising on cross-border transactions, international trade, regulatory compliance, and corporate governance matters. Panelists will examine recent developments in U.S. trade and investment law and policy, as well as their impact on international collaborations, corporate compliance, and mergers and acquisitions. The discussion will explore how general counsel and in-house legal teams assess and manage evolving trade-related risks within their organizations. Particular focus will be given to developments during the first two years of the second Trump Administration, including changes in tariff policy, tariff refunds, export controls, economic sanctions, and national security reviews of foreign investment. Through a discussion of regulatory trends and practical case studies, attendees will gain a deeper understanding of the legal risks and compliance obligations associated with cross-border business activities, and hear about practical strategies for advising clients and managing compliance obligations in a rapidly changing trade and investment environment. 9:45 am - 10:45 am CT Session A: The Elon Musk Cases: What Tesla and Twitter Can Teach Your Board of Directors Loren Unterseher, Managing Partner, Oxbow Industries, LLC Shulamite White, Chief Legal Officer and Head of People, Motive Technologies Kirsten Schubert, Tom Swigert, and Jonathan Van Horn, Dorsey & Whitney LLP Recent cases involving Elon Musk and his businesses have had significant impact on principles governing board of directors’ fiduciary duties and corporate processes. This panel will examine recent litigation involving Elon Musk, Tesla, and Twitter, and its effects on the law governing the duties of directors and executives, including the executive compensation and director compensation processes, conflicts that may arise when a single executive has control over multiple businesses, and the ramifications of tweets or other public statements by an executive. Session B: All Eyes on DEI: Managing Diversity Efforts Amid Regulatory Scrutiny and Potential Litigation Maggie Dalton, Senior Commercial Attorney, Cargill; Board Co-Chair, Twin Cities Diversity in Practice Laura A. Vannelli, Legal Counsel, Mayo Clinic Susan Lorenc and Jack Sullivan, Dorsey & Whitney LLP The legal and regulatory landscape surrounding diversity, equity, and inclusion (DEI) initiatives has changed dramatically over the past two years. Law firms and legal departments are continuing to grapple with how to recruit, retain, and develop talent from a wide range of personal backgrounds, in a world where previously accepted recruiting and employment practices are facing increased scrutiny and litigation. This program will provide a practical overview of the current legal regime, including recent federal enforcement actions and litigation trends associated with DEI initiatives. Panelists will discuss practical ways in which organizations can pursue and retain legal talent and increase inclusion while minimizing legal, business, and reputational risk. 11:00 am - 12:00 pm CT Session A: Governance in an Age of Increasing Unpredictability James Chosy, Senior Executive Vice President and General Counsel, U.S. Bancorp Todd Hartman, Executive Vice President and Chief Legal and Risk Officer, Best Buy Co., Inc. Alan Rosselot, Associate General Counsel & Assistant Secretary, Delta Air Lines, Inc. Cam Hoang and Robert Rosenbaum, Dorsey & Whitney LLP More than ever, ensuring that boards are well-informed and forward-thinking is critical to a company’s success. Join our panel of corporate governance experts as they share their experiences advising boards through crisis and unpredictable events; capitalizing on, but also checking, disruptive technologies; and positioning the company to succeed in an environment of shifting government priorities. Session B: A Day in the Life of a Trademark, Copyright & Advertising Attorney: A Hypothetical Case Study Alexander Kim, Vice President and General Counsel, Binks Nate Whitaker, Chief Legal Officer and General Counsel, Crumbl Cathy Dahl and Tiffany Shimada, Dorsey & Whitney LLP What issues are companies facing daily while developing rights in intellectual property, protecting those rights, and staying in compliance with myriad potential issues related to advertising, social media, relationships with influencers, and environmental or governmental claims? This panel will feature two in-house counsel who are navigating these issues, utilizing a hypothetical case study, with the support of two Dorsey attorneys helping to develop a roadmap for meeting business objectives and minimizing the risk of claims. 12:00 pm - 1:15 pm CT Keynote Address Dr. Rebecca Heiss, Stress Physiologist Dr. Rebecca Heiss is a stress physiologist, author, and sought-after speaker who helps audiences transform fear and stress into fuel for greater performance and resilience. Her research has been recognized as “transformative” by the National Science Foundation, and she is the author of two books, Springboard and Instinct. Through her Fear(less) message, Rebecca inspires audiences with practical, science-based strategies to train our brains to work for us – not against us – and navigate change and uncertainty with greater confidence.